On the surface of Earth, it is around 9.8 m/s². G is the gravitational acceleration and is different depending on which planet you are on. It's used in the formula for the Law of Universal Gravitation (look it up if you need), which gives the gravitational force between any two objects, even you and a star thousands of light-years away. g, however, is the gravitational acceleration. G is the (universal) gravitational constant. If I am not accelerating, that means there is no resultant force, and yet I still experience 1g. But, if I go back to earth, when I stand on its surface, I have gravity pulling me down, and I have the force of the earth's surface (normal) resisting my motion. However, what happens when I add resistive forces? Do you only take the resultant force? That seems an attractive option, because the resultant force is the only part of the force that induces acceleration. The only resistance to this force is the body's inertia, which resists acceleration. For example a body in a complete vacuum is acted on by a force. However, this started to confuse me when I began to add other forces. This seems to make sense, when in freefall I am not resisting any acceleration, and when I am standing on earth I am resisting 1g. One answer I got on Quora said that $G$s are actually defined by the resistance to acceleration.
G in physics free#
Furthermore, when in free fall, a body is said to experience 0g.
This confused me though, because when a body is at the surface of the Earth, even without change in velocity, it is said to be experiencing 1g. I initially thought that $G$s were defined purely by acceleration. I am going to explain what I think I know and how that leads up to my question - please correct any false claims I make or conclusions I draw.
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